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25.12.2024 01:43 β π 0 π 0 π¬ 0 π 0
Although of course both examples are perfectly fine. I just think the first is a better illustration of the desired result.
19.11.2024 16:12 β π 0 π 0 π¬ 0 π 0
I think it's much more intuitive, because we can more easily confirm that X_n = 1 must always happen again, no matter where we are. In the 1/n example, we have to accept that there will be infinitely many additional 1's, even when the probability reaches arbitrarily small values
19.11.2024 16:12 β π 0 π 0 π¬ 1 π 0
So this fulfills convergence in probability βperfectlyβ in my opinion, since X_n = 1 clearly becomes much less likely, but itβs equally clear that it will ALWAYS happen again. Compared to the usual example of P(X_n = 1) = 1/n, which can also easily be verified to converge in p but not a.s.,...
19.11.2024 16:12 β π 0 π 0 π¬ 1 π 0
The idea behind convergence in probability is that it becomes increasingly unlikely that X_n > epsilon, while almost sure convergence states that X_n > epsilon is impossible past a certain point.
19.11.2024 16:12 β π 0 π 0 π¬ 1 π 0
Want to share my favorite example ever. Perfectly shows that convergence in p doesn't imply convergence a.s. The idea is that, though clearly we are converging to 0 in probability, we can always find omega and m >= n (for all n) such that X_m(omega) = 1 (*I think LHS of last line needs ->0 in {})
19.11.2024 15:57 β π 0 π 0 π¬ 1 π 0
Yo
09.11.2024 01:29 β π 0 π 0 π¬ 0 π 0
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